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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 24 Jan 2011 18:26 
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Davoz wrote:
Tom Palven wrote:
Davoz wrote:
This yields a ‘how’ question without the contentious non-consequence issue, and I interpret it in the sense that your ‘how’ is not in fact an empirical/historical/political question about processes, incidents and events susceptible to descriptive and narrative exposition, but rather (from my perspective at least) a metaphysical question about grounding ‘rights’ naturalistically in something other than the brute facts of the empirically demonstrable, which is what much contemporary ethical debate is all about.

Davoz, You mention, above, the quest to logically ground human "rights". I don't think that this will be possible. Thomas Aquinas made a case for the divine rights of kings and popes. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divine_right_of_kings

It is probably an elaborate case, but elaborate bullshit is still bullshit. Few people outside Saudit Arabia, or some other Mid-Eastern countries, perhaps, continue to give the concept any credence, and an attempt to extend this bogus concept over a wider area so that the "commoner" has "rights" is equally bogus. The problem is that any of these so-called rights, to "a living wage", "adequate health care", "intellectual property" or whatever, is predicated upon the nonexistient and illogical "right" of some people to coerce others. Not only did segregationists, slave-owners, or members ofthe Third Reich lack this right, it has not been shown, IMHO, how anyone acquires this right.


Tom, thanks for continuing to engage in discussion.

It’s rather hard to see how the defeasibility of an argument for the divine right of kings, based in any case on a specific supernatural metaphysics, permits the inference that it will be impossible to make a persuasive case for grounding some contemporary action-guiding principles though a naturalistic metaphysics. After all, many human projects that would have been seen as impossible or unimaginable in the 13th century have been realised during the past 700 years.

Where you refer to ‘the quest to logically ground human “rights” ...' and to ‘how anyone acquires this ... nonexistent and illogical “right” ... to coerce others’, and where I refer to ‘a metaphysical question about grounding ‘rights’ naturalistically in something other than the brute facts of the empirically demonstrable’, what is involved, on my construal, is a dual aspect of rights that could be characterised as follows.

Empirical (R-Emp): Rights, whether to coerce or to be exempt from coercion (at random: to levy taxes, to assemble with others, to emprison, to practice a religion, to a fair wage, to self-defence, to impose a traffic fine), are variously asserted, denied, assented to, argued for, introduced, withdrawn, modified, and so on. Under this aspect, the existence of rights is a matter of observation, fact and public discourse.

Metaphysical (R-Met): The web of individual logical/cognitive operations which underpins intersubjective cooperation in maintaining, justifying or enabling rights to have the mode of empirical existence (R-Emp) that they do. To say that this web is metaphysical is to say that it is explanatorily engaged in excess of the empirical realities to which it points. It can be seen to apply to rights in a similar way in which it applies to money: under an empirical aspect (equivalently, M-Emp), I use a $50 banknote in a transaction; under a metaphysical aspect (M-Met), money is referable to a set of logical/cognitive operations in the way just described without which the (M-Emp) transaction would have no practical significance.

In saying that rights are ‘nonexistent’ one clearly cannot mean rights under the (R-Emp) aspect without denying social facts and observable states of affairs, since rights (R-Emp) do have an empirical mode of existence and are appealed to all the time under this aspect in an action-guiding way. But, as I understand it, you are in fact using ‘nonexistent’ as a way of saying that you do not believe particular arguments for rights (R-Emp), underpinned by (R-Met), can be logically justified. However, in saying that some ethical claim is not logically justified you are saying, equivalently, that it has no right to be considered justified, and thus you are obliged to use a language or a concept of rights in order to make this assertion. Moreover, one cannot, as far as I can see, get round this simply by claiming that the judgement itself is a value-neutral logical judgement about a value-laden object (rights), because this begs the question whether it's possible to make value-neutral logical judgments on ethical issues, that is, without ethical assumptions about rightness and wrongness entering into the judgment. (The fact/value distinction is much debated but unresolved, and my assumption here is that the possibility of making value-neutral logical assertions about something like rights is very limited.


Davoz, You're certainly welcome. I'm enjoying this discussion.

1. Yes, I think the defeasibility of the divine rights of kings may be a bit of a strawman, but I see a relationship between the belief in the divine rights of kings and the belief in "certain unalienable rights" "endowed by their Creator" mentioned in the US Declaration of Independence. Old Testament Judeo-Christi-Islamic ethics in combination with utlilitarian ethics, with the state as a father figure, have arguably stood the ancient Golden Rule on its head wherin homosexual acts are now considered to be unethical by many, but killing innocent people with drone-fired rockets is not unethical. I don't think that I am distorting the facts or being merely inflamatory to say that it was this same combination of ethcs that the National Socialist Workers (NAZI) Party argued for under the Third Reich.
Note Hitler's appeal to altruism:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yf6_zKLbykQ
(Okay, what's another straw man between friends?)

2. Yes, what you refer to as Empirical Rights (or legal rights) such as "the right to adequate health care" or "the right to bear arms" can exist as legal privileges (entitlements) until repealed or amended.

3. I agree with mcfate that you presented a good analogy between metaphysical rights and state-issued banknotes which are not gold-backed and are accepted only on the "full faith and credit" of Zimbabwe or the US government.
You say, Davoz, that "the possibility of making value-neutral logical assertions about something like rights is very limited," but I think that you could make the same statement about the exisitence of God (No?). If inherent human rights exist, or if God exists, let's see the evidence. And, as mentioned before, if inherent or God-given rights to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness exist, what good did they do minorities under the Third Reich?

4. I'm not sure that the Golden Rule (esp. in platinum form) is not naturalistic in that it seems to conform to basic human nature the world over, one example being don't lie to people because they don't like to be lied to, or to lie, as evidenced by stress indicators in polygraph tests.

The statements above have the commonality of extreme skepticism I have about the acquistion of ethical knowledge since the time of Confucius' Golden Rule of about 500 BC, including Judeo-Christi-Islamic "knowledge", the philosophical "knowledge" of Aquinas, Hobbes, Rousseau, Marx, Rawls, et al (including the discoveries of "rights" and "social contracts"), and the economic "knowledge" of Keynes, Gaibraith, Krugman et al predicated upon coercive states. True scientific knowledge, on the other hand, has, of course, exploded.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 25 Jan 2011 17:11 
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mcfate wrote:
Davoz wrote:
However, in saying that some ethical claim is not logically justified you are saying, equivalently, that it has no right to be considered justified, and thus you are obliged to use a language or a concept of rights in order to make this assertion.


I don't see this. "Rights" could be justified or not justified by logic, perhaps, but the ability to make claims about them is different. The ability to make a claim does not equate to the right to make a claim, and while we have the ability to say that rights are not justified by logic, this is not contradictory because we are not invoking a right to do it. (We even have the ability to make a claim about rights and logic that can be shown to be logically inconsistent).
Mcfate, the ability to make a claim, as I see it, is the acquired cognitive ability to engage in some discursive practice (in science, economics, history, ethics, sport, whatever) and to make the kind of assertions which are normatively regarded within that practice as ‘claims’. The making of a claim under those conditions supposes that arguments can be adduced which will allow it to be considered as justified or not justified according to the norms of the practice, which means that a claim has a right to be considered justified when it meets the appropriate normative criteria.

Consequently, I have no difficulty at all in agreeing with you that ‘the ability to make a claim does not equate to the right to make a claim’ because, as I hope that disentanglement may show, that’s not what I’m saying. I’m not referring to ‘the ability to make a claim’, but to whether that claim when made has a right to be considered justified in its appropriate context, which was the gist of my comment that you’ve quoted.

What I’m suggesting in general is that ‘... has a right ... ’ is a highly mobile and catch-all predicate which transfers with relative ease from apparently value-free logical assertions to ethically-loaded assertions of all kinds while appearing to import something radically different as it goes.
Quote:
Are you saying that "rights" have the same type of value that fiat currency has? I can certainly see empirical evidence for this.
I think you finger the point precisely, because I understand your question to be about whether the same general kind of metaphysical logic has to be in place for either our money-talk and money-use or our rights-talk and rights-use to have practical empirical significance. So, yes.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 25 Jan 2011 18:35 
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Davoz wrote:
Mcfate, the ability to make a claim, as I see it, is the acquired cognitive ability to engage in some discursive practice (in science, economics, history, ethics, sport, whatever) and to make the kind of assertions which are normatively regarded within that practice as ‘claims’. The making of a claim under those conditions supposes that arguments can be adduced which will allow it to be considered as justified or not justified according to the norms of the practice, which means that a claim has a right to be considered justified when it meets the appropriate normative criteria.

Consequently, I have no difficulty at all in agreeing with you that ‘the ability to make a claim does not equate to the right to make a claim’ because, as I hope that disentanglement may show, that’s not what I’m saying. I’m not referring to ‘the ability to make a claim’, but to whether that claim when made has a right to be considered justified in its appropriate context, which was the gist of my comment that you’ve quoted.

What I’m suggesting in general is that ‘... has a right ... ’ is a highly mobile and catch-all predicate which transfers with relative ease from apparently value-free logical assertions to ethically-loaded assertions of all kinds while appearing to import something radically different as it goes.


What I see is that in context a claim can logically be considered justified or not logically considered justified. If you are saying that this is a claim 'having the right' to be considered justified, does this mean that a right is some sort of logical measure? As I normally understand it, a right is a type of 'authority' over something (such as the right to make a claim, even an unjustified claim), as opposed to 'ability' (such as the ability to make a claim). Unlike a legal right, though, an 'inherent' right can only really be enacted by the person claiming the right (if I have a right to hit you then I can exercise that right), though this fails with many 'negative' rights (if I have an inherent right not to be hit, this does not protect me from being hit). A legal right has legal recourse (you could be put in gaol for hitting me, maybe).

I suppose logic could have authority over a claim, but I think I only ever see it as right to consider a certain type of claim justified, not a right that the claim has, or that logic has over the claim.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 27 Jan 2011 09:49 
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Tom Palven wrote:
1. Yes, I think the defeasibility of the divine rights of kings may be a bit of a strawman, but I see a relationship between the belief in the divine rights of kings and the belief in "certain unalienable rights" "endowed by their Creator" mentioned in the US Declaration of Independence. Old Testament Judeo-Christi-Islamic ethics in combination with utlilitarian ethics, with the state as a father figure, have arguably stood the ancient Golden Rule on its head wherin homosexual acts are now considered to be unethical by many, but killing innocent people with drone-fired rockets is not unethical. I don't think that I am distorting the facts or being merely inflamatory to say that it was this same combination of ethcs that the National Socialist Workers (NAZI) Party argued for under the Third Reich.
Note Hitler's appeal to altruism:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yf6_zKLbykQ
(Okay, what's another straw man between friends?)

....

4. I'm not sure that the Golden Rule (esp. in platinum form) is not naturalistic in that it seems to conform to basic human nature the world over, one example being don't lie to people because they don't like to be lied to, or to lie, as evidenced by stress indicators in polygraph tests.

The statements above have the commonality of extreme skepticism I have about the acquistion of ethical knowledge since the time of Confucius' Golden Rule of about 500 BC, including Judeo-Christi-Islamic "knowledge", the philosophical "knowledge" of Aquinas, Hobbes, Rousseau, Marx, Rawls, et al (including the discoveries of "rights" and "social contracts"), and the economic "knowledge" of Keynes, Gaibraith, Krugman et al predicated upon coercive states. True scientific knowledge, on the other hand, has, of course, exploded.
Tom, in your (1) and (4) quoted I think you make a very apt point about shifting historical investments in sources of moral authority for ‘rights’. The new ‘inalienable rights’ of the Declaration of Independence that you instance were the putative ‘natural rights’ expounded by John Locke and others but subsequently excoriated as meaningless by Jeremy Bentham. They haven’t had an easy ride, and if ‘naturalising’ rights and their ethical underpinning remains a live project, as it does, this would seem to be largely because the significant difference between then and now is that Darwinism, anthropology, psychology and neuroscience, inter alia, have had a massive impact on educated views of what ‘basic human nature’ might be.

To your example of the deeply socially-embedded and normative expectation that what someone says to you will be true rather than false, one might add the extensive empirical work on people’s responses to moral dilemmas, which shows a significant consistency across cultural, religious and nonreligious divides in terms of moral intuitions. It seems to me that there is enough empirical sinew in this experimental social psychology to give current ethical enquiry something to work on.

The pronounced turn to ethical pragmatism in the conditions of a post-Holocaust world seems to make plausible a kind of ‘rights minimalism’ along these lines:

(1) In the absence of ‘grounded’ ethical principles (i.e., principles grounded in beliefs which are fully epistemologically justified through whatever arguments and logic are appropriate), provisional principles based on some minimal measure of broad assent are better than no principles at all or bitterly disputed sectarian principles, if

(2) they take into account normative moral intuitions of the kind discussed above, whatever their natural or metaphysical status turns out to be, because

(3) whether the latter lend themselves to consequentialist, utilitarian, reciprocally-obligating golden rule-type, deontological or other descriptions is less important than the wide scope of their distribution.

(4) It's preferable in general for ‘rights’ construed in terms of (1) to (3) to be embodied in laws, even though (a) some remain contestable or contested, and (b) they may not be fully understood by those who stand to benefit from them but can be appealed to by those who do.

Such a pragmatically-driven view of ‘rights’ has the advantage that it gives up on pretensions to objectivity in favour of ongoing arguability (I think Mcfate might approve of this). The role of ethicists and metaethicists is, among other things, to strengthen arguability, and where it can be supported through the adduction of factual data (something central, for example, to Sam Harris’ case in The Moral Landscape), so much the better. The sceptical objection that this will not always ‘work’ is entertainable only to the extent that it can be clearly shown that something else does.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 28 Jan 2011 01:20 
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Dovoz,
I read everything that Elizabeth George, John Grisham, and Stephen White write, and a lot of other fiction, but rarely read nonfiction. Recently, however, my wife got a book by one her favorite authors, Margaret Atwood, which she thought was fiction, but is not, Payback, and I've just started reading it. On page 19 Atwood says:
"As Robert Wright says in his 1995 book, The Moral Animal: Why We Are the Way We Are, "Reciprocal altruism has presumably shaped the texture not just of human emotion, but of human cognition."
And so on. I may comment on it further after I've finished it. I mention it because I think that this is related to the kind of discoveries you want to see discussed in the pursuit of satisfactorily grounded objective ethical principles. Interesting, and all well and good.
However, I'd like to further present the case of how IMHO the current reliance on utilitarian ethics may be distructive to over-all human well-being due to its enablement of statism and statism's handmaidens, Keynesianism and Keynesian-style command economics. So, what I'd like to do this evening or tomorrow is to cut and paste a few clips on this relationship. It's off-topic, and not even exactly in the category of ethics, but no one will be required to read it.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 28 Jan 2011 10:22 
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mcfate wrote:
What I see is that in context a claim can logically be considered justified or not logically considered justified. If you are saying that this is a claim 'having the right' to be considered justified, does this mean that a right is some sort of logical measure? As I normally understand it, a right is a type of 'authority' over something (such as the right to make a claim, even an unjustified claim), as opposed to 'ability' (such as the ability to make a claim). Unlike a legal right, though, an 'inherent' right can only really be enacted by the person claiming the right (if I have a right to hit you then I can exercise that right), though this fails with many 'negative' rights (if I have an inherent right not to be hit, this does not protect me from being hit). A legal right has legal recourse (you could be put in gaol for hitting me, maybe).

I suppose logic could have authority over a claim, but I think I only ever see it as right to consider a certain type of claim justified, not a right that the claim has, or that logic has over the claim.
Mcfate, if you grant the paraphrasing, we already agree on (1) and (2) of the following, I further agree with your (3) and (5), but we disagree about (4).

(1) The logical justification of claims is contextually dependent.
(2) The right to make a claim is different from the ability to make a claim.
(3) An ‘inherent’ right is a right not embodied in any law but a brute right subjectively assumed by an individual whether or not it is agreed to be a right in any intersubjective sense.
(4) Said of a claim, ‘having a right’ in the context of a particular discourse is a correctly assertable predicate synonymous with ‘having the property of being acceptable as logically valid and justified’ according to the norms of that discourse.
(5) A right is a type of ‘authority’.

By (1) and (5), if a claim C in the context of a particular discourse adequately meets the normative logical criteria pertinent to that discourse for judging a claim justified, then C carries the same authority as equivalent former claims in that discourse which have already shaped what is normatively logically valid and justified.

By (2), the ability of the claimant to make C is demonstrated by the contextual knowledge she deploys in making a justified claim, but is different from any right she may have (e.g., a right granted through membership of a profession) to make C.

In terms of (4), we would disagree, I imagine, about my saying that C has the right and concomitantly, by (5), the authority, to be considered a logically valid and justified claim, where ‘has the right to’ is synonymous with (i.e., acceptable by competent speakers of English as equivalent to) ‘has the property of being logically valid and justified’.

However, (6) is a logically structured, semantically virtuous and correctly assertable sentence in English:

(6) This formula has a right to be considered the most important theoretical achievement of the century in mathematics.

So is (7), your example:

(7) I have a right to hit you.

If (1) is correct, then the predicate ‘has a right ...’ (and its modal variants) is correctly assertable of things like formulae as it is of humans. This seems to me to show that the predicate transfers readily between ethically-loaded and ethically-neutral propositions. Your supposition that ‘logic could have authority over a claim’ is quite consistent with (1), but doesn’t defeat (4) or my conclusion in relation to (6).


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 28 Jan 2011 11:00 
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Davoz wrote:
However, (6) is a logically structured, semantically virtuous and correctly assertable sentence in English:

(6) This formula has a right to be considered the most important theoretical achievement of the century in mathematics.

So is (7), your example:

(7) I have a right to hit you.


Hmm, I have to think about this a bit. A right, to me, gives me the impression of a formula which describes a morally possible action (a subset of physically possible actions) - but this type of formula doesn't give me a right, it is a right. In the same way, the formula mention in (6) describes something, but has no possible actions (physical or moral). There might exist a right which describes that accurate, correct or logical information should have precedence when considering action (where considering or decision-making are themselves actions which can therefore be described by a right), but this applies to the actions of people, rather than the formula. However, "this formula has a right to be taken seriously" is convenient shorthand, so even though I questioned your usage of the word "right", I suppose I should accept it.


Last edited by mcfate on 29 Jan 2011 14:38, edited 1 time in total.

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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 29 Jan 2011 14:04 
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Tom Palven wrote:
Dovoz,
I read everything that Elizabeth George, John Grisham, and Stephen White write, and a lot of other fiction, but rarely read nonfiction. Recently, however, my wife got a book by one her favorite authors, Margaret Atwood, which she thought was fiction, but is not, Payback, and I've just started reading it. On page 19 Atwood says:
"As Robert Wright says in his 1995 book, The Moral Animal: Why We Are the Way We Are, "Reciprocal altruism has presumably shaped the texture not just of human emotion, but of human cognition."

And so on. I may comment on it further after I've finished it. I mention it because I think that this is related to the kind of discoveries you want to see discussed in the pursuit of satisfactorily grounded objective ethical principles. Interesting, and all well and good.

However, I'd like to further present the case of how IMHO the current reliance on utilitarian ethics may be distructive to over-all human well-being due to its enablement of statism and statism's handmaidens, Keynesianism and Keynesian-style command economics. So, what I'd like to do this evening or tomorrow is to cut and paste a few clips on this relationship. It's off-topic, and not even exactly in the category of ethics, but no one will be required to read it.
Tom, there’s certainly a wealth of evidence that would support Wright’s cited observation, and ethology is a fruitful source. Jessica Flack and Frans de Waal, for example, table 11 tendencies in nonhuman animals which they think of as constituting ‘the four ingredients of morality’ (Any Animal Whatsoever, in Leonard D Katz (Ed.), Evolutionary Origins of Morality, Imprint Academic, 2000: 22). These include giving succour, cognitive empathy and reciprocity, and it's eminently plausible to suppose that these are the proto-forms of empirically identified features of the neurocognitive architecture of modern humans on which cultural evolution has built its superstructure. Ethics is obviously concerned with factors limiting altruism, whether reciprocal or unconditional. Co-authors evolutionary biologist David Sloan Wilson and philosopher Elliott Sober acknowledge the difficulty humans have in extending altruism beyond in-groups of varying size and scope and observe prudentially that ‘if selection promotes an altruistic concern for the welfare of one’s near and dear, it also may promote indifference or malevolence toward outsiders’ (Unto Others, Harvard University Press, 1998: 326).

I’ll be interested to read your comments and observations on Atwood in relation to ‘the way we are’ and perhaps to statism as well.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 29 Jan 2011 16:39 
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Davoz wrote:
Tom Palven wrote:
Dovoz,
I read everything that Elizabeth George, John Grisham, and Stephen White write, and a lot of other fiction, but rarely read nonfiction. Recently, however, my wife got a book by one her favorite authors, Margaret Atwood, which she thought was fiction, but is not, Payback, and I've just started reading it. On page 19 Atwood says:
"As Robert Wright says in his 1995 book, The Moral Animal: Why We Are the Way We Are, "Reciprocal altruism has presumably shaped the texture not just of human emotion, but of human cognition."

And so on. I may comment on it further after I've finished it. I mention it because I think that this is related to the kind of discoveries you want to see discussed in the pursuit of satisfactorily grounded objective ethical principles. Interesting, and all well and good.

However, I'd like to further present the case of how IMHO the current reliance on utilitarian ethics may be distructive to over-all human well-being due to its enablement of statism and statism's handmaidens, Keynesianism and Keynesian-style command economics. So, what I'd like to do this evening or tomorrow is to cut and paste a few clips on this relationship. It's off-topic, and not even exactly in the category of ethics, but no one will be required to read it.
Tom, there’s certainly a wealth of evidence that would support Wright’s cited observation, and ethology is a fruitful source. Jessica Flack and Frans de Waal, for example, table 11 tendencies in nonhuman animals which they think of as constituting ‘the four ingredients of morality’ (Any Animal Whatsoever, in Leonard D Katz (Ed.), Evolutionary Origins of Morality, Imprint Academic, 2000: 22). These include giving succour, cognitive empathy and reciprocity, and it's eminently plausible to suppose that these are the proto-forms of empirically identified features of the neurocognitive architecture of modern humans on which cultural evolution has built its superstructure. Ethics is obviously concerned with factors limiting altruism, whether reciprocal or unconditional. Co-authors evolutionary biologist David Sloan Wilson and philosopher Elliott Sober acknowledge the difficulty humans have in extending altruism beyond in-groups of varying size and scope and observe prudentially that ‘if selection promotes an altruistic concern for the welfare of one’s near and dear, it also may promote indifference or malevolence toward outsiders’ (Unto Others, Harvard University Press, 1998: 326).

I’ll be interested to read your comments and observations on Atwood in relation to ‘the way we are’ and perhaps to statism as well.


Atwood spent five pages talking about Egyptian gods, and particularly godesses of truth and justice, concluding on page 29 with "We are usually given to understand that we are the philosophical heirs of the Greek-speakers and Romans and Israelites, not of the Ancient Egyptians, but in fact the Greek tradition of divine justice is somewhat more confusing and foreign to us than the Egyptian one."
Just thought I'd mention this since Egypt is so much in the news. Yes, page 29 already. Really racing along. Will keep you posted.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 31 Jan 2011 10:30 
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mcfate wrote:
Davoz wrote:
However, (6) is a logically structured, semantically virtuous and correctly assertable sentence in English:

(6) This formula has a right to be considered the most important theoretical achievement of the century in mathematics.

So is (7), your example:

(7) I have a right to hit you.


Hmm, I have to think about this a bit. A right, to me, gives me the impression of a formula which describes a morally possible action (a subset of physically possible actions) - but this type of formula doesn't give me a right, it is a right. In the same way, the formula mention in (6) describes something, but has no possible actions (physical or moral). There might exist a right which describes that accurate, correct or logical information should have precedence when considering action (where considering or decision-making are themselves actions which can therefore be described by a right), but this applies to the actions of people, rather than the formula. However, "this formula has a right to be taken seriously" is convenient shorthand, so even though I questioned your usage of the word "right", I suppose I should accept it.
That’s a very apt point you make about the presumption of action in rights talk. I think there are strong arguments in favour of moral irrealism, which holds that terms like ‘good’, ‘right’, ‘correct’, ‘wrong’, ‘bad’ and so on do not pick out objectively real moral properties of judgments, states of affairs or actions. It seems to me that those authors are probably on the right track who suppose that we use these and cognate terms effectively in an action-guiding way, but that their suffusion throughout everyday language persuades us to assume falsely that our use of them is objectively descriptive in cases where they’re ethically significant.

If that’s so, I agree with your point that the predicate ‘has a right’ presupposes some possible action-in-the-world if that’s taken to mean that action-guidance is inferentially integral with its meaning. However, usage suggests that this action-guiding component of the meaning of ‘has a right’ (A) may be quite vague and non-specific about whose actions are presumptively so guidable, and (B) holds whether ‘has a right’ is asserted of a human or of an animate or inanimate object.

The ‘non-specificity’ condition (A) means that that the possible action implied or presupposed is not necessarily that of the person of whom it is said that she ‘has a right’. In (8) and (9) below the presumption of possible action is made non-specifically, involving by implication anyone competent to act in respect of that right rather than specifying either ‘Ibrahim’ or ‘residents’:

(8) Baby Ibrahim has a right to live.

(9) Residents have a right to privacy.

The ‘generalising’ condition (B), on the other hand, means that ‘has a right’ can be correctly, normatively and comprehensibly asserted of some inanimate thing like a formula, as it is in example (6).

Conditions (A) and (B) combine to make (6) correctly assertable in spite of its seeming counter-intuitive. Like Ibrahim in (8), the formula in (6) can’t take any action itself in respect of the right it’s asserted to have. And (A), the 'non-specificity of agency for action condition', explains why, although possible action implied by ‘has a right’ can’t be taken by the formula itself, it could be taken by unspecified mathematicians in their professional work precisely in virtue of the formula’s right to prestige.

I think this also shows that in the way we use rights talk its action-guiding aspect is insensitive to whether the subject is ethically significant or ethically neutral.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 31 Jan 2011 11:01 
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I would say, perhaps, that there could be a right which describes how people should and should not treat baby Ibrahim, which we could then use shorthand for and ascribe to the baby.

Also, if 'living' is considered an action, then there could certainly be a right related to this. However, 'being a formula' doesn't involve any action or process, so the shorthand notation definitely works, as I mentioned earlier, but the formula itself doesn't directly have a 'right'.


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 Post subject: Re: The Golden Rule
PostPosted: 03 Feb 2011 12:38 
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mcfate wrote:
I would say, perhaps, that there could be a right which describes how people should and should not treat baby Ibrahim, which we could then use shorthand for and ascribe to the baby.

Also, if 'living' is considered an action, then there could certainly be a right related to this. However, 'being a formula' doesn't involve any action or process, so the shorthand notation definitely works, as I mentioned earlier, but the formula itself doesn't directly have a 'right'.
No one can say we haven’t given this one a good run! Just to recap with a focus on the examples

(1) I have a right to hit you,
(2) Baby Ibrahim has a right to live,
(3) This formula has a right to be considered the most important theoretical achievement of the century in mathematics,

we’re agreed that an assigned right implies possible action, but you’re sceptical that (3) is an acceptable statement on the grounds that an inanimate entity cannot act.

I think this sceptical point can be addressed partly through the observation that to imply possible action is not to specify possible actors. Depending on the semantics of different statements about rights, the implied actor may be (A) the holder of the right or (B) another party (or parties).

In (1), condition (A) applies, as the implied action is directly imputable to the holder of the right.

In (2), if we go along with your liberal interpretation that living is at least necessary for any action Ibrahim might engage in, it is all the same inevitable that others must act in respect of the right in order for Ibrahim to live, so that both conditions (A) and (B) apply.

In (3), condition (B) applies exclusively, because any action that might be taken in respect of the right can be engaged in only by others, the holder of the right being unable to do so.

Lingering scepticism about (3) might remain if in actual usage terms like ‘right’ and ‘rights’ were confined to contexts of ethical significance, but if this were the case, (3) would not be intelligible, as it is, to English speakers. I don’t think there’s anything mysterious about this. Making sense of a statement or utterance referring to ‘rights’ involves our associating this reference inferentially with an individual conceptual network in which ‘rightness’ and ‘wrongness’ have cultural and normative salience but which is only partly consciously accessible. Cognitive scientist Jerry Fodor asks us to ‘consider the thesis that concepts are bundles of statistically reliable features ...’ (Concepts: Where Cognitive Science Went Wrong, Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1998:92). For rightness and wrongness to be ‘statistically reliable’ features of the ‘bundled’ rights concepts expressed in (1) – (3) does not entail that they are necessarily ethically significant (they might be associable with the correctness or otherwise of an arithmetical calculation or a logical deduction) .

We can check how this idea cashes out by cross-substituting terms in (1) and (3) to produce the nonsense of

(4) This formula has a right to hit you,

which clearly doesn’t satisfy the requirement for intelligibility that (3) does.


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